AndyM
Pruner
- Joined
- Feb 2, 2009
- Messages
- 98
Ok so my flatmates are discussing our flat next year and our allocation of rooms. The general consensus is that the fairest way would be to allocate rooms randomly (though the girls aren't too happy about this because obviously being girls they deserve bigger and better rooms, but that's a different story...) so the plan is to number the rooms from 1 to 6 and each draw them out of a hat.
However, someone said that whoever draws first has more choice of room because they have a 1 in 6 chance of drawing whilst the second person will only have 1 in 5 chance, the third 1 in 4 and the last person won't have any choice, they have to have the last room. I said that this wasn't an issue that it was still random. It seems really obvious to me that the last person's choice is still random, I even feel stupid for posting this (though I could still be wrong), but I was unable to explain why eloquently enough to them to persuade them. Can someone please do so?
Love, your mathematically challenged friend.
However, someone said that whoever draws first has more choice of room because they have a 1 in 6 chance of drawing whilst the second person will only have 1 in 5 chance, the third 1 in 4 and the last person won't have any choice, they have to have the last room. I said that this wasn't an issue that it was still random. It seems really obvious to me that the last person's choice is still random, I even feel stupid for posting this (though I could still be wrong), but I was unable to explain why eloquently enough to them to persuade them. Can someone please do so?
Love, your mathematically challenged friend.